Polygamy?

[Curious Christian]

What is the Muslim stance on Polygamy. In my University I read in a book that Muslim men are permitted up to 4 wives. Is this still the case? What is the basis/arguement for polygame in the Qur'an?

[wel_mel_2]

Bismillah:

What is the Muslim stance on Polygamy. In my University I read in a book that Muslim men are permitted up to 4 wives. Is this still the case? What is the basis/arguement for polygame in the Qur'an?

Yes, a Muslim man is allowed to marry up to 4 wives under the condition that he must deal justly between all of his wives. and yes it is still the case today, and in fact <b>sometimes it is a solution to many problems.</b>


However, the Qur’an <b>is the only religious book</b>, on the face of this earth, that contains the phrase<b> ‘marry only one’. </b> There is no other religious book that instructs men to have only one wife. In none of the other religious scriptures, whether it be the Vedas, the Ramayan, the Mahabharat, the Geeta, the Talmud or the Bible does one find a restriction on the number of wives. According to these scriptures one can marry as many as one wishes. <b>It was only later, that the Hindu priests and the Christian Church restricted the number of wives to one.</b>


In earlier times, Christian men were permitted as many wives as they wished, since the Bible puts no restriction on the number of wives. It was only a few centuries ago that the Church restricted the number of wives to one.


Polygyny is also permitted in Judaism. According to Talmudic law, Abraham had three wives, and Solomon had hundreds of wives. The practice of polygyny continued till <b>Rabbi Gershom ben Yehudah </b> (95% C.E to 1030 C.E) issued an edict against it. The Jewish Sephardic communities living in Muslim countries continued the practice till as late as 1950, until an Act of the Chief Rabbinate of Israel extended the ban on marrying more than one wife.


As I mentioned earlier, Qur’an is the only religious book on the face of the earth that says ‘marry only one’. The context of this phrase is the following verse from Surah Nisa of the Glorious Qur’an:


"Marry women of your choice, two, or three, or four; <b>but if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one."</b> [Al-Qur’an 4:3]


Before the Qur’an was revealed, there was no upper limit for polygyny and many men had scores of wives, some even hundreds. Islam put an upper limit of four wives. Islam gives a man permission to marry two, three or four women, only on the condition that he deals justly with them.


In the same chapter it says:


<b>"Ye are never able to be fair and just as between women</b>...[Al-Qur’an 4:129]


Therefore polygyny <b>is not a rule but an exception</b>. Many people are under the misconception that it is compulsory for a Muslim man to have more than one wife. which is wrong.


for any more clarification do let me know.


Salam


Wael.

[reepicheep]

> the Bible puts no restriction on the number of wives.


You are mistaken.

Let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband. I Corinthians 7:2

The terms used are "wife" and "husband", not "wives" and "husbands".

[wel_mel_2]

> the Bible puts no restriction on the number of wives.


You are mistaken.


The terms used are "wife" and "husband", not "wives" and "husbands".

<b>This is ambiguous as usual.</b>


If we use the same book <b>(2 Chronicles)</b> you will find in chapter <b>11:21 </b> (WHICH IS "INSPIRED" AFTER THE VERSE YOU HAVE QUOTED ABOVE), King Solomon's son Rehoboam had <b>18 wives and 60 concubines.</b>


<b>It is a fact that the Bible nowhere out rightly condemns polygamy.</b>


<b>There is not a single verse from the New Testament that prohibits polygamy.</b> Christians usually mistakenly present the following verses from the Bible to prove that polygamy in the New Testament is not allowed:


Matthew 19:1-12 "


1. When Jesus had finished saying these things, he left Galilee and went into the region of Judea to


the other side of the Jordan.


2. Large crowds followed him, and he healed them there.


3. Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?"


4. "Haven't you read," he (Jesus) replied, "that at the beginning the Creator `made them male and female,'


5. and said, `For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh' ?


6. So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."


7. "Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?"


8. Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.


9. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."


10. The disciples said to him, "If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry."


11. Jesus replied, "Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given.


12. For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made that way by men; and others have renounced marriage because of the kingdom of heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it."


In the above verses, we see that Jesus was approached with a question about whether or not it is allowed for a man to divorce his wife in Matthew 19:3. Jesus immediately referred to the Old Testament for the answer in Matthew 19:4. He referred to Adam and Eve, one man and one woman. The Old Testament does talk about the story of Adam and Eve as one husband and one wife. However, the Old Testament which Jesus had referred to in Matthew 19:3 <b>does allow polygamy. </b> Also, when a man becomes a one flesh with his wife in Matthew 19:5-6, this doesn't mean that the man can't be one flesh with another woman. He can be one flesh with his first wife, and one flesh with his second wife, and one flesh with his third wife and so on.... To further prove this point, let us look at the following from the New Testament:


Matthew 22:23-32


23. That same day the Sadducees, who say there is no resurrection, came to him with a question.


24. "Teacher," they said, "Moses told us that if a man dies without having children, his brother must marry the widow and have children for him.


25. Now there were seven brothers among us. The first one married and died, and since he had no children, he left his wife to his brother.


26. The same thing happened to the second and third brother, right on down to the seventh.


27. Finally, the woman died.


28. Now then, at the resurrection, whose wife will she be of the seven, since all of them were married to her?"


29. Jesus replied, "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God.


30. At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.


31. But about the resurrection of the dead--have you not read what God said to you,


32. `I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob' ? He is not the God of the dead but of the living."


In Matthew 22:24-28, the Jews referred to Deuteronomy 25:5 from the Old Testament where it states that if a woman's husband dies, and she didn't have any kids from him, then she must marry his brother regardless whether he had a wife or not. When the Jews brought this situation up to Jesus in Matthew 22:24-28, <b>Jesus did not prohibit at all</b> for the childless widow to marry her husband's brother <b>(even if he were married). </b> Instead, Jesus replied to them by saying that we do not marry in heaven, and we will be like angels in heaven (Matthew 22:30).


So in other words, if Jesus allowed for a widow to marry her former husband's brother even if he were married, then this negates the Christians' claim about the Bible prohibiting polygamy. A man can be one flesh with more than one woman. In the case of Matthew 22:24-28, the man can be one flesh with his wife, and one flesh with his deceased brother's wife. Also keep in mind that Exodus 21:10 allows a man to marry an infinite amount of women, and Deuteronomy 21:15 allows a man to marry more than one wife.


dont you remember Jesus' parable when he allows polygamy between <b>1 man (the bridegroom) and 10 virgins </b> ??? Wouldn't Jesus' parable be absolutely pointless <b>if polygamy was forbidden?</b>


Salam


Wael.

[Curious Christian]

<b>This is ambiguous as usual.</b>


If we use the same book <b>(2 Chronicles)</b> you will find in chapter <b>11:21 </b> (WHICH IS "INSPIRED" AFTER THE VERSE YOU HAVE QUOTED ABOVE), King Solomon's son Rehoboam had <b>18 wives and 60 concubines.</b>


<b>It is a fact that the Bible nowhere out rightly condemns polygamy.</b>


<b>There is not a single verse from the New Testament that prohibits polygamy.</b> Christians usually mistakenly present the following verses from the Bible to prove that polygamy in the New Testament is not allowed:


Matthew 19:1-12 "


1. When Jesus had finished saying these things, he left Galilee and went into the region of Judea to


the other side of the Jordan.


2. Large crowds followed him, and he healed them there.


3. Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?"


4. "Haven't you read," he (Jesus) replied, "that at the beginning the Creator `made them male and female,'


5. and said, `For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh' ?


6. So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."


7. "Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?"


8. Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.


9. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."


10. The disciples said to him, "If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry."


11. Jesus replied, "Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given.


12. For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made that way by men; and others have renounced marriage because of the kingdom of heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it."


In the above verses, we see that Jesus was approached with a question about whether or not it is allowed for a man to divorce his wife in Matthew 19:3. Jesus immediately referred to the Old Testament for the answer in Matthew 19:4. He referred to Adam and Eve, one man and one woman. The Old Testament does talk about the story of Adam and Eve as one husband and one wife. However, the Old Testament which Jesus had referred to in Matthew 19:3 <b>does allow polygamy. </b> Also, when a man becomes a one flesh with his wife in Matthew 19:5-6, this doesn't mean that the man can't be one flesh with another woman. He can be one flesh with his first wife, and one flesh with his second wife, and one flesh with his third wife and so on.... To further prove this point, let us look at the following from the New Testament:


Matthew 22:23-32


23. That same day the Sadducees, who say there is no resurrection, came to him with a question.


24. "Teacher," they said, "Moses told us that if a man dies without having children, his brother must marry the widow and have children for him.


25. Now there were seven brothers among us. The first one married and died, and since he had no children, he left his wife to his brother.


26. The same thing happened to the second and third brother, right on down to the seventh.


27. Finally, the woman died.


28. Now then, at the resurrection, whose wife will she be of the seven, since all of them were married to her?"


29. Jesus replied, "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God.


30. At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven.


31. But about the resurrection of the dead--have you not read what God said to you,


32. `I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob' ? He is not the God of the dead but of the living."


In Matthew 22:24-28, the Jews referred to Deuteronomy 25:5 from the Old Testament where it states that if a woman's husband dies, and she didn't have any kids from him, then she must marry his brother regardless whether he had a wife or not. When the Jews brought this situation up to Jesus in Matthew 22:24-28, <b>Jesus did not prohibit at all</b> for the childless widow to marry her husband's brother <b>(even if he were married). </b> Instead, Jesus replied to them by saying that we do not marry in heaven, and we will be like angels in heaven (Matthew 22:30).


So in other words, if Jesus allowed for a widow to marry her former husband's brother even if he were married, then this negates the Christians' claim about the Bible prohibiting polygamy. A man can be one flesh with more than one woman. In the case of Matthew 22:24-28, the man can be one flesh with his wife, and one flesh with his deceased brother's wife. Also keep in mind that Exodus 21:10 allows a man to marry an infinite amount of women, and Deuteronomy 21:15 allows a man to marry more than one wife.


dont you remember Jesus' parable when he allows polygamy between <b>1 man (the bridegroom) and 10 virgins </b> ??? Wouldn't Jesus' parable be absolutely pointless <b>if polygamy was forbidden?</b>


Salam


Wael.

Read it in context as you love to say:


<b>1 Cor 7</b>


1Now for the matters you wrote about: It is good for a man not to marry.[a] 2But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband. 3The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband. 4The wife's body does not belong to her alone but also to her husband. In the same way, the husband's body does not belong to him alone but also to his wife. 5Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control. 6I say this as a concession, not as a command. 7I wish that all men were as I am. But each man has his own gift from God; one has this gift, another has that.


8Now to the unmarried and the widows I say: It is good for them


<b>Eph 5:321</b>


1"For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two
will become one flesh."


<b>1 Tim 3:1</b>


1Here is a trustworthy saying: If anyone sets his heart on being an overseer,[a] he desires a noble task. 2Now the overseer must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach,


To be above reproach one must have 1 wife???? But I thought only the Qur'an taught that having 1 wife was moral?


There are many, many. many instances in the NT where mongamy is preached. "Wife" is used over and over again. Sexual immorality is deplored.


I can take you answer about Polygamy in Islam, but you ascertation that the Bible teaches Polygamy is lunacy.

[SisterJennifer]

I think the thread is about Islamic polygamy but I just wanted to make a quick point, which is that the Jews are allowed to take more than one wife if they wish. However the Rabbis about 100 years ago made an order for the jews not to do it for the reason that they have turned on religion and are not morally capable. The ban was supposed to be for a certain amount of time, but that time has elapsed and the Rabbis still did not lift the ban.


My point is that sometimes what the people are doing is not the same as what the religion teaches. If the Jews according to Old testament have the option of polygamy and Jesus did not come to change the law then the only conculsion is that its an exsisting option, and there are still today groups of Bible based christians who practice it even though it is not the mainstream norm.

[wel_mel_2]

Bismillah:

I think the thread is about Islamic polygamy but I just wanted to make a quick point, which is that the Jews are allowed to take more than one wife if they wish. However the Rabbis about 100 years ago made an order for the jews not to do it for the reason that they have turned on religion and are not morally capable. The ban was supposed to be for a certain amount of time, but that time has elapsed and the Rabbis still did not lift the ban.


My point is that sometimes what the people are doing is not the same as what the religion teaches. If the Jews according to Old testament have the option of polygamy and Jesus did not come to change the law then the only conculsion is that its an exsisting option, and there are still today groups of Bible based christians who practice it even though it is not the mainstream norm.

exactly sister, Polygyny is permitted in Judaism. the practice of polygyny continued till <b>Rabbi Gershom ben Yehudah (95% C.E to 1030 C.E)</b> issued an edict against it. The Jewish Sephardic communities living in Muslim countries continued the practice till as late as 1950, until an Act of the Chief Rabbinate of Israel extended the ban on marrying more than one wife.


also In earlier times, <b>Christian men were permitted as many wives as they wished</b>, the Bible really puts <b>no restriction </b> on the number of wives. It was only <b>a few centuries ago that the Church restricted the number of wives to one</b><b> and not the Bible.</b>


Salam


Wael.