11-11-2003, 04:03 PM
I have been discussing with other posters on the Non Muslim guest forum about the perception of oppression of women in Islam. Most people who responded to my questions regarding this matter were quick to defend the status of women in Islam but I remain unconvinced. Here is an excerpt from an article from the main web site;
<i> If at a particular time, a lady has no desire for sex with her husband, but he insists for it, what is her right of refusal in this context ? </i>
A5. If a husband expresses his desire for sexual intercourse with his wife, and <b>asks her to fulfill his need,</b> then she should fulfill her husband's desire, and <b>she has no right to refuse him or deprive him of his need</b> (unless of course if she is undergoing her monthly menstruation period or is down with illness.
The article goes on to say that it is all a woman's fault should the man stray from the marriage etc.
See the link
http://www.islamsms.com/en/modules.php...article&sid=309
Does this just not re enforce the perception of oppression on women ?
Are there any women muslims on here that would defend this position ?