11-04-2009, 01:45 AM
Bismillah: Assalamo Alikum.
<b>AlShamms</b>
Quote:Well in terms of the King James, the first "version" was released in 1611, in the language of the day. An example of a verse looks like this:
John 3:16
(16) For God so loued ye world, that he gaue his only begotten Sonne: that whosoeuer beleeueth in him, should not perish, but haue euerlasting life.
As time went on, that type of language became archaic so the NKJV was produced. An example of a verse looks like this:
John 3:16
(16) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
I guess sister Muslimah was referring to “<b>versions</b>” where certain words, phrases and even whole books were expunged from other versions or added to a new version etc... she was not talking about simplifying the KJV language.
Quote:While the nuances in the english language change, those changes do not change the meaning of the verse.
That was a bit misleading, take for instance the following verse:
Acts 3:26 - Unto you first God, having raised up <b>his Son Jesus</b>
, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities. (<b>King James Version</b>)
Acts 3:26 - To you first, God, having raised up <b>His Servant Jesus</b>
, sent Him to bless you, in turning every one of you away from his iniquities. (<b>New King James Version</b>)
Now we are left with the following options.
1- Either one of these versions is wrong in this quotation. Or,,,
2- both terms (son and servant) are synonymous and in this case you should not insist that Jesus is the literal son of God.
Salam
Wael.