Ask a Shia

[Karbala]

Quran 4:24 merely states that "all others are lawful," i.e. one may marry any partner to whom marriage is not otherwise prohibited in the Quran. It does not say that Mut'a is alright, and the verse's discussion of the dowery does not imply the legality of Mut'a but merely recites the general rule that the dowery contracted for, cannot be reduced except by mutual agreement.

Herein lies the fallacy of reading translations of the Quran. Wael take a closer look at the Arabic.


4:24 explicitly allows Muta'


فَمَا اسْتَمْتَعْتُم بِهِ


The underlined word (Istamta'tum) is a derivative of the word Muta'. The literal translation here is <b>"Then as to those whom you do Muta' with, give them their dowries as appointed" </b> other verses differentiate conventional marriage by using the derivatives of the word "Nikah".


So you see Wael. The Quran here permits Muta' through the mutual agreement of dowries. Here is my challenge:


<b>Only another verse from the Quran can abrogate another verse in the Quran, Muta' has been allowed in 4:24 show me a verse where Muta' has been abrogated, forbidden or replaced.</b>


Your Divorce argument doesn't follow. It is a well known legal fact that there is no divorce in Muta' (you must remember that Muta' was definitely practiced and allowed at some points during the time of the Prophet(saw)) A Divorce involves certain protocols and formulas none of which apply in Muta'. Muslimah is right its more like an annulment.