07-14-2007, 12:47 PM
In His Name the most High,
Salamun Alaikum
Hadji:
It has become a habit of yours to pick out and quote Shia scholars in order to discredit the whole Shia system. You are free to do so. Infact I admit that people like Sayed Khoei are major Ulema of our Madhab. But can I request something. Any quotes should either be in english or translated into english since I have a hard time with arabic. If not then you will have to wait a while while I try and get it translated. (ps can you give me the exact quote by Al-Khoei because I cant find it.)
Quote:These are what knowledgable translators have done with the verses.
These "knowledgeable" translators are mostly belonging to the Sunni creed. Since you object when I bring Shia translators its only fair that I shouldnt accept Sunni translation. Ive told you before I don't blindly follow people I prefer to see things with my own eyes.
Quote:According to these translations it is without a doubt that the verse is talking about the same group of people.
Do you doubt that "innama" can mean <b> But, Rather, On the Contrary, However, Yet </b> as defined in certain dictionaries? If you use these words then it is clear that the verse is excluding the wives since "innama" qualifies the previous statement hence "on the contrary" must be referring to the switching from wives to AhlulBayt.
Consider the following sentence.
"Jack is a good boy, <b>on the contrary</b> the rest of you are bad boys".
"Jack is a good boy, <b>Rather</b> the rest of you are bad boys".
"Jack is a good boy, <b>But</b> the rest of you are bad boys".
"Jack is a good boy, <b>However</b> the rest of you are bad boys".
"Jack is a good boy, <b>Yet</b> the rest of you are bad boys".
First part and second part of the sentence are connected while jack is excluded from the rest of the group. This is similar to the way I am interpreting "innama" and 33:33.
Hence 'Innama' can definitely be used to distinguish one group from another. If you object then there are numerous verses in the Quran to prove this.
The idolaters have no right to visit the mosques of Allah while bearing witness to unbelief against themselves, these it is whose doings are null, and in the fire shall they abide. Only <b>(Innama)</b> he shall visit the mosques of Allah who believes in Allah and the latter day, and keeps up prayer and pays the poor-rate and fears none but Allah; so (as for) these, it may be that they are of the followers of the right course. (Surat Tauba 17-18)
Are the idolators not excluded from the believers using the particle "innama"? Is this not a correct grammatical interpretation?
Surely he has no authority over those who believe and rely on their Lord. His authority is only <b>(Innama)</b> over those who befriend him and those who associate others with Him. (Surat An-Nahl 99-10)
Are the believers not separated from the friends of Shaitan using "innama"? Or according to you does the context demand that the friends of Shaitan be included amongst the believers?