Ask a Shia

[Karbala]

Karbala, please use your logic here. Why would Mohammed (pbuh) pray for Ali, Fatima, Al Hassan and Al-Hussain (raa) to be included here as Ahlul-bayt after the verse was revealed? Wouldn't that be pointless since the verse is talking about them?

I dont agree with your logic. What is wrong with the Prophet praying for Allah to carry out a promise he has made in the Quran? This sort of language has been used in the Quran itself.


3:9 Our Lord! surely Thou art the Gatherer of men on a day about which there is no doubt; surely Allah will not fail (His) promise.


3:194 Our Lord! And grant us that which you have promised to us by Your messengers and save us from shame on the Day of Judgement. Verily You never fail to fulfill Your promise.


Infact I thought we were always supposed to do Dua to ask for something even if Allah has already promised it to us.


4:122 And (as for) those who believe and do good, We will make them enter into gardens beneath which rivers flow, to abide therein for ever; (it is) a promise of Allah, true (indeed), and who is truer of word than Allah?


So according to your logic it would be pointless for "those who believe and do good" to ask for "gardens beneath which rivers flow" since it is already promised to them. This logic is wrong.

In fact, what the Prophet (pbuh) is trying to do is to include Ali, Fatima, Al Hassan and Al-Hussain (raa) as part of those that were mentioned as well. That is why he told Um Salama (raa) "inti ala khair". The verse is talking about her and the other wives.

Interesting interpretation. So you are saying Allah revealed a verse which didn't include Ali, Fatima, Hassan and Hussain and then the Prophet (saw) had to pray for them to be included? This is a bit of a stretch of the imagination.


A few questions:


1. Is there any incident narrated which shows an event in which 33:33 was revealed for the wives? Or did you just assume that the wives were already in AhlulBayt?


2. Doesn't this mean that another verse had to be sent down, since the original verse was referring to the wives and Mohammad and not Ali, Fatima, Hassan and Hussain.


3. Why didn't Allah give Mohammad the same reply he gave Nuh in 11:45 when Nuh cried out to Allah to include his Son in his "Ahl" and was warned by Allah not to ask about that which he had no knowledge?


The incident with Umm Salamah clearly shows that the wives were not included.