Why Islam?

[wel_mel_2]

Bismillah:

Wel_mel_2, nothing that you wrote has anything to do with the situation of there being exactly two daughters.

No no, seriously, you have to answer my question, am very very very interested to know <b>which Islamic scholars </b> that<b> “realized that this is not fair”</b>? Could you please name <b>ONE OF THOSE SCHOLARS AND PROVIDE YOUR EVIDENCE IF YOU ARE TRUTHFUL. </b> you must support your claims with some evidence, otherwise <b>do not spread lies</b>.

It appears you agree with surah 4:11 as it is written in arabic?

<b>Do you know what are the exact Arabic terms used in this verse ??? </b>

In other words, if there are exactly two daughters, then the daughters receive no inheritance? If you don't agree, then please show me the verse from the koran that describes the inheritance which is given to two daughters..

i was just trying to make you understand the law if inheritane according to Islam, but it seems you are not interested. however to clarify further chapter 4:11 we read:


"Allah enjoins you about [the share of inheritance of] your children: A male's share shall equal that of two females -- in case there are only daughters, more than two shall have two-thirds of what he [i.e. the deceased] has left. And if there be only one daughter, she shall get half [of the wealth] -- and if the deceased has children, the parents shall inherit a sixth each of what he [i.e. the deceased] has left, and if he has no children and the parents are his heirs then his mother shall receive a third, and if he has brothers and sisters then the mother's share is the same one-sixth. [These shares shall be distributed] after carrying out any will made by the deceased or payment of any debt owed [by him]."


The sentence (Allah enjoins you about [the share of inheritance of] your children) is a preamble for the following statement (male's share shall equal that of two females).


The word (AWLAD) includes both male and female children. Thus, the whole statement shall mean: "Allah enjoins you about your children , the share of each male child from among them shall be equal to that of two females".


The statement (in case there are only daughters 2 or more) is a parenthetical clause stating an exception to the rule "A male's share shall equal that of two females" . This exception has changed the implication that If the deceased has only sons or only daughters, all of the deceased's wealth shall be inherited by whoever is present. Now it means that if there be only daughters, <b>whether two or more</b>, they shall not share the whole of the deceased's wealth but shall share two-thirds of the wealth left by the deceased.


in short, according to MOST Muslim scholars (by the way, i could list their names if you wish) explains the share of children as follows:


The deceased's children shall share in the balance of the property and assets of the deceased, after the stipulated shares of all the inheritors of the first category have been given. The share of the deceased's children is as follows:


- If there are both sons and daughters -- the share of each son shall be double that of each daughter, in the balance of the property and assets of the deceased after the shares of the first category of inheritors is given..


- If there are only sons -- all the sons shall share equally in the balance of the property and assets of the deceased after the shares of the first category of inheritors is given.


- If there is only one son -- he shall take all the balance of the property and assets of the deceased after the shares of the first category of inheritors is given.


- If there is only one daughter (and no other children) -- she shall get half of the balance of the property and assets of the deceased after the shares of the first category of inheritors is given.


- If there be <b>two or more daughters (and no sons) </b> -- they shall share equally in two-thirds of the balance of the property and assets of the deceased after the shares of the first category of inheritors is given.


Now, if you read the Arabic words of this verse clearly it could means 2 or more. there is no problem of understanding this in Arabic at all.


Now, what the Bible have to say about Inheritance reep ?????


Let us look at <b>"If a man dies and leaves no son</b>, turn his inheritance over to his daughter. (Numbers 27:8)"


So in other words, women (daughters, sisters and mothers) don't inherit anything<b> if a man (son) is present.</b>


One of the most important differences between the Quran and the Bible is their attitude towards female inheritance of the property of a deceased relative. According to Numbers 27:1-11, widows and sisters don't inherit at all. Daughters can inherit only if their deceased father <b>had no sons</b>. Otherwise the sons receive the entire inheritance. Among the pagan Arabs before Islam, inheritance rights were confined exclusively to the male relatives. The Quran abolished all these unjust customs and gave all the female relatives their just share. Alhamdulelah.


Salam


Wael.