06-18-2006, 05:33 AM
Bismillah:
Quote:wel_mel_2 wrote:
> You don’t have one any single verse from the lips of Jesus so
> explicit and so unambiguous to prove that he was God. NOT AT ALL.
Clearly, the people Jesus was talking to believed he was claiming to be God.
Again the word ONE used here in the Greek translation does not mean ONE IN ESSENCE OR NATURE. Or else you will have a problem regarding the same word ONE when Jesus include his father and his disciples and said that all of them are ONE.
"That they all may be <b>one as thou. Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us..."</b>
<b>"I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one...</b>"(John 17:20-22)
to complete the verses for better understanding, we read:
31. "Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him,"
32. "but Jesus said to them, I have shown you many great miracles <b>from the Father</b>. For which of these do you stone me?"
33. "The Jews answered him, saying : 'For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, <b>makest thyself a God.'" </b> (John 10:31-33).
In verse 24 above the Jews falsely alleged that Jesus was talking ambiguously. When that charge was ably refuted, they then accused him of blasphemy which is like treason in the spiritual realm. So they say that Jesus is claiming to be God <b>"I and the Father are one". </b> The Christians agree with the Jews in this that Jesus did make such a claim; but differ in that it was not blasphemy because the Christians say that he was God and was entitled to own up to his Divinity.
The Christians and the Jews are both agreed that the utterance is serious. To one as an excuse for good "redemption", and to the other as an excuse for good "riddance". Between the two, let the poor Jesus die. <b>But Jesus refuses to co-operate in this game, so:</b>
34. "Jesus answered them, <b>Is it not written in your Law, `I have said you are gods'?" </b>
35. "If he called them <b>`gods,' to whom the word of God came --and the Scripture cannot be broken--," </b>
36. "what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, <b>`I am God's Son'?" </b> (John 10:34-36).
He is a bit sarcastic in verse 34, but in any event, why does he say: <b>"Your Law"? </b> Is it not also his Law? Didn't he say: <b>"Think not that I am come to destroy the Law of the prophets: I am come not to destroy, but to fulfill (the Law). For verily I say unto you, till heaven and earth pass away, one Jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the Law, till all be fulfilled." (Matthew 5:1718).</b>
"You are gods:" He is obviously quoting from the<b> 82nd Psalm , verse 6, "I have said, ye are gods:</b> and all of you are the children of the most High."
Jesus, continues: "If he (i.e. God Almighty) called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, meaning that the prophets of God were called<b> 'gods'</b> <b>and the scripture cannot be broken..." </b> (John 10:35), in other words he is saying: "you can't contradict me!" Jesus knows his Scripture; he speaks with authority; and he reasons with his enemies that: <b>"If good men, holy men, prophets of God are being addressed as 'gods' in our Books of Authority, with which you find no fault, then why do you take exception to me? When the only claim I make for myself is far inferior in our language, viz. 'A son of God' as against others being called 'gods' by God Himself</b>. <b>Even if I (Jesus) described myself as 'god' in our language, according to Hebrew usage, you could find no fault with me." This is the plain reading of Christian Scripture. I am giving no interpretations of my own or some esoteric meaning to words!</b>
Salam
Wael.
BASED ON THE WORK OF AHMED DEEDAT.