06-12-2006, 01:28 PM
(This post was last modified: 06-12-2006, 01:39 PM by reepicheep.)
wel_mel_2 wrote:
> I have no problem if you translate the original
> manuscripts from Hebrew and Greek into the
> English language, but my main issue here is
> WHICH BIBLE TODAY IS THE CORRECT
> TRANSLATION OF THE ORIGINAL TEXT?
Good. You have expressed a rational, coherent thought which I can respond to, and which we can then discuss.
Let's take, as an example, the first part of surah 4:11 from the koran:
the Yusuf Ali translation reads:
> Allah (thus) directs you as regards your Children's
> (Inheritance): to the male, a portion equal to that
> of two females: if only daughters, two or more,
the Pickthal translation reads:
> Allah chargeth you concerning (the provision for)
> your children: to the male the equivalent of the portion
> of two females, and if there be women more than two,
Obviously, the two translations contradict each other (i.e., if you look at the part I've hilighted in red, Yusuf Ali includes the case where the number of daughters is "2", while Pickthal excludes this case).
I have no problem if you translate the original manuscripts from Arabic into the English language, but my main issue here is
WHICH KORAN TODAY IS THE CORRECT TRANSLATION OF THE ORIGINAL TEXT?