02-07-2005, 04:50 PM
Quote:"Do you (faithful believers) covet that they will believe in your religion inspite of the fact that a party of them (Jewish rabbis) used to hear the Word of Allah [the Taurat (Torah)], then they used to change it knowingly after they understood it?" (Quran 2:75)
Yet there is no proof of this anywhere. The only place that such a thing is noted is in the Quran.
Quote:"And indeed, We gave Musa (Moses) the Book and followed him up with a succession of Messengers. And We gave 'Iesa (Jesus), the son of Maryam (Mary), clear signs and supported him with Ruh-ul-Qudus [Jibrael (Gabriel)]. Is it that whenever there came to you a Messenger with what you yourselves desired not, you grew arrogant? Some, you disbelieved and some, you killed.
" (Quran 2:87)
Jesus was never "supported" by Gabriel? What does that even mean? The only thing recorded about Gabriel is that he announced the birth of Jesus to Mary. What type of support do Muslims think Gabriel gave to Jesus?
And Gabriel has <b>NEVER</b> been known as or referred to as the Holy Spirit.
Quote:"And when there came to them (the Jews), a Book (this Qur'an) from Allah confirming what is with them [the Taurat (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel)], although aforetime they had invoked Allah (for coming of Muhammad ﻢﻠﺳﻭ ﻪﻴﻠﻋ ﻪﻠﻟﺍ ﻰﻠﺻ) in order to gain victory over those who disbelieved, then when there came to them that which they had recognised, they disbelieved in it. So let the Curse of Allah be on the disbelievers." (Quran 2:89)
This passage is totally void of any meaning to a Christian or Jew. Because.... the Quran, here, makes the claim that it is <b>CONFIRMING</b> what <b>IS</b> with them - the Torah and Gospel. However, according to modern-day Islamic belief, both were already corrupted and distorted by the time of Muhammad, hence the need to "restore" the original messages.
So, how can Jews or Christians be "cursed" for disbelieving when the Quran itself says that it IS CONFIRMING their Books, yet it contradicts them at every turn?
Why would Allah say this if he already knew that the books were no longer in their original form?
Quote:"And when there came to them a Messenger from Allah (i.e. Muhammad ﻢﻠﺳﻭ ﻪﻴﻠﻋ ﻪﻠﻟﺍ ﻰﻠﺻ) confirming what was with them, a party of those who were given the Scripture threw away the Book of Allah behind their backs as if they did not know!
" (Quran 2:101)
Here again is the same thing. How can they "throw behind their backs" any Book if the <b>REAL</b> books were already gone? In terms of Islamic belief, it should be a good thing that they threw them away since these would have been the corrupted versions anyway, right?
Quote:"Those to whom We gave the Scripture (Jews and Christians) recognise him (Muhammad ﻢﻠﺳﻭ ﻪﻴﻠﻋ ﻪﻠﻟﺍ ﻰﻠﺻ or the Ka'bah at Makkah) as they recongise their sons. But verily, a party of them conceal the truth while they know it - [i.e. the qualities of Muhammad ﻢﻠﺳﻭ ﻪﻴﻠﻋ ﻪﻠﻟﺍ ﻰﻠﺻ which are written in the Taurat (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel)].
" (Quran 2:146)
But we DON'T recognize Muhammad. There ARE NO descriptions of Muhammad in the Bible and AGAIN.... Why would Allah appeal to books that <b>HE</b> should have known were corrupt anyway?
Quote:"O people of the Scripture! (Jews and Christians): "Why do you disbelieve in the Ayaat of Allah, [the Verses about Prophet Muhammad ﻢﻠﺳﻭ ﻪﻴﻠﻋ ﻪﻠﻟﺍ ﻰﻠﺻ present in the Tauraat (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel)] while you (yourselves) bear witness (to their truth) * O people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians): "Why do you mix truth with falsehood and conceal the truth while you know?"
." (Quran 3:70-71)
Same thing again. There is nothing about Muhammad in the Torah or the Gospel.
And we disbelieve because on one-hand, the Quran claims to be confirming our books yet in reality, it contradicts it. So AGAIN... Why does Allah appeal to our "false scriptures"?