02-03-2005, 02:19 AM
<b>On a side note:</b>
Here is an ayat that Umm_Zachariah posted in her 2nd post:
Quote:'And thou (O Muhammad) wast not a reader of any scripture before it, nor didst thou write it with thy right hand, for then might those have doubted who follow falsehood' (29:48).
Then, on a link that Muslimah gave in her last post, the same ayat was posted:
Quote:"And thou was not (able) to recite a Book before this (Book came), nor art thou (able) to transcribe it with thy right hand: in that case, indeed, would the talkers of vanities have doubted."
[Al-Qur’an 29:48]
These translations are vastly different, in my opinion, and I have seen this in several different verses. There is such a huge difference between translations as to totally alter the meaning of particular passages.
Why is this and how does one know which translation to trust?
Another example is the passage (can't recall the exact surah and ayat) that says that in the Torah and Injeel, there is guidance and light.
In one translation, it says, there IS guidance and light.
Another translation says, there WAS guidance and light.
Again, very different meanings.
Is someone toying with the wording and the English translations? Who is to be trusted? Surely it can't be that difficult to translate past and present tense from Arabic to English!