01-14-2005, 04:42 PM
Quote: "So if they dispute with thee, say: "I have submitted My whole self to Allah and so have those who follow me." And say to the People of the Book and to those who are unlearned: "Do ye (also) submit yourselves?" If they do, they are in right guidance, but if they turn back, Thy duty is to convey the Message; and in Allah's sight are (all) His servants. " (Quran 3: 20)
ronniv this is another position where Allah Used Ummyeen which is translated here as unlearned.
Allah in this Ayah is Commanding the Messenger Salla Allah a`lyhee wa sallam to tell the people of the book and those who are illiterate. Because the Messenger Salla Allah a`lyhee wa sallam was sent to all of mankind as well as the jinn.
Why then is the term "ummyeen" contrasted with "people of the book"?
Logically speaking, I would look at the grammatical use here and say, Okay, if on the one hand we have "The People of the Book" then the contrast would be "People without the Book."
This is not clear that it means illiterate.
There have been TONS of followers of both Judaism and Christianity throughout history who were illiterate. But the Quran just calls them "People of the Book", nonetheless, because they follow the precepts and teachings of the revelations given to mankind. So, the contrast would be other people "without the book."
This view would fit into Muslim beliefs that Muhammad would be sent to all mankind as well. Because if Muhammad is just told to go to the Christians Jews (People of the Book) and the illiterates of the world, then that leaves out all the <b>literate</b> people who may be followers of other religions or atheists, agnostic, etc.