11-05-2004, 04:08 AM
According to Gospel of Matthew (1:2-16), in the first 14 generations, from Abraham through David (Luke has 21 generations!), only four mothers are listed. The only other woman mentioned in Matthew’s whole “genealogy” is Mary (as), the mother of Christ, and wife of Joseph – after Christ’s birth. Can it possibly be completely coincidental that Mary’s name is the last female name in the list that includes - Tamar, Rahab, Ruth, and Bathsheba – all of whom, according to “Jewish holy scriptures” slept with men out of wedlock?
Why did the author of Matthew mention only these particular women in a very long genealogy that would have to have included at least 42 women? I believe the Jewish message in this genealogy is that Jesus’ conception was other than immaculate.
And how Holy Qur'an praises Mary the Mother of Christ:
"And remember when the angels said, O Mary, Allah has chosen thee and purified thee and chosen thee above all women oft he time....." - (3:43-44)